I.C ENGINE MCQ

Q.1 The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is____.

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.2 fuel oil consumption guarantees for I.C. engine are usually based on ___.

A. High heat value of oil

B. Low heat value of oil

C. Net calorific value of oil

D. All of the above

Ans-: A

Q.3 In I.C. engine the ratio of volume of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke is known as __.

A. Expansion ratio

B. Compression ratio

C. Efficiency of engine

D. Air- fuel ratio

Ans-: B

Q.4 if the intake air temperature of IC engine increases, its efficiency will ?

A. Decreases

B. Increases

C. Same

D. Depends on other factor

Ans-: A

Q.5 An engine indicator is used to determine the following

A. Temperature

B. Speed

C. M.e.p. and I.H.P.

D. BHP

Ans-: C

Q.6 the requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical air required for complete combustion is__.

A. Same

B. More

C. Loss

D. Variable

Ans-: C

Q.7 which of the following is not an internal combustion engine?

A. 2 stroke and 4 stroke engine

B. Steam engine

C. Diesel engine

D. Gas turbine

Ans-: B

Q.8 as a result of detonation in an IC engine, following parameter attains very high value.

A.  Rate of rise of temperature

B. Rate of rise of pressure

C. Peak Temperature

D. Peak  pressure

Ans-: B

Q.9 in diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature of ___.

A. 500° C

B. 1500 ° C

C. 2000° C

D. 1000 ° C

Ans-: D

Q.10 The precess of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called?

A. Atomisation

B. Ionisation

C. Carburetion

D. Vaporization

Ans-: A

Q.11 The camshaft of a four stroke IC engine running at 15,00 RPM will run at _____ rpm.

A. 1500

B. 3000

C. 750

D. 1250

Ans-: C

Q.12 result for supercharging in any engine is to ?

A. Reduce weight and bulk for a given output

B. Increase efficiency

C. Decrease efficiency

D. All of the above

Ans-: A

Q.13 The Magneto uesd in an automobile is basically ___.

A. Capacitor

B. A.C. generator

C. Transformer

D. D.C. generator

Ans-: D

Q.14 in a cycle The Spark lasts roughly for

A. 0.001 sec

B. 0.01 sec

C. 0.1 sec

D. 1.0 sec

Ans-: A

Q.15 The specific fuel consumption of petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is 

A. Same

B. Less

C. More

D. Depends on operating conditions

Ans-: C

Q.16 The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is

A. Less

B. More

C. Same

D. Depends on engine 

Ans-: A

Q.17 The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about

A. 100 to 150 RPM

B. 250 to 350 RPM

C. 60 to 80 RPM

D. 10 to 20 RPM

Ans-: C

Q.18 the fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean air filter will be

A. Lower

B. Higher

C. Same

D. Unaffected

Ans-: B

Q.19 Engine Pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it is___.

A. Less wear

B. Absorb shock

C. Lighter

D. Stronger

Ans-: C

Q.20 Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately

A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : 10

C. 2 : 1

D. 10 : 1

Ans-: D

WELDING MCQ-04

Q.1 Which of the following welding process uses consumable electrode ?

A. Laser

B. Arc

C. Gas

D. Metal inert gas

Ans-: D

Q.2 In arc welding operations the current value is decided by ___.

A. Size of the electrode

B. Thickness of electrode

C. Thickness of plate

D. Voltage across the arc

Ans-: A

Q.3 In thermit welding, the iron oxide and aluminium oxide are mixed in the proportion of __.

A. 2 : 1

B. 1 : 1

C. 3 : 1

D. 1 : 2

Ans-: C

Q.4 in the arc welding process, the following order of temperature may be generated ?

A. 1000° C

B. 5500° C

C. 15000 ° C

D. 8000 ° C

Ans-: B

Q.5 In arc welding, the arc length should be equal to the _____.

A. Diameter of electrode rod

B. Rod diameter

C. Twice the rod diameter

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.6 In which welding process, the electrode gets consumed ?

A. Resistance

B. Friction

C. Arc

D. Gas

Ans-: C

Q.7 The strength of properly welded joint as compared to base metal would be ?

A. More

B. Less

C. Same

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.8 In which welding process, arc blow occurs

A. Arc welding 

B. Gas welding

C. Friction welding

D. Resistance welding

Ans-: A

Q.9 Metal deposited on to the workpiece from the electrode is ______.

A. Falls because of gravity

B. Attracted due to electromagnetic action

C. Forced across the arc

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.10 In the mannual tungsten inert gas welding, the angle of the electrode holder with the direction of welding is ____.

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 70°

D. 180°

Ans-: C

WELDING MCQ-03

Q.1 In resistance welding, the voltage used for heating is ____.

A. 550 V

B. 200 V

C. 10 V

D. 100 V

Ans-: C

Q.2 The forge welding is best suited for which material?

A. High carbon steel

B. Wrought iron

C. Cast iron

D. High speed steel

Ans-: B

Q.3 For which material, preheating is essential in welding process?

A. Cast iron

B. Stainless steel

C. High speed steel

D. Aluminum

Ans-: A

Q.4 which welding process is best for grey cast iron?

A. Tungsten inert gas

B. Metal inert gas

C. Arc

D. Oxy-acetylene

Ans-: D

Q.5 Laser welding finds widest application in which industry?

A. Process industry

B. Heavy industry

C. Structural industry

D. Electronic industry

Ans-: D

Q.6 In welding process , edge preparation is not required upto what thickness of plate?

A. 8 mm

B. 4 mm

C. 10 mm

D. 5 mm

Ans-: B

Q.7 The phenomenon of weld decay occurs in which material?

A. Carbon steel

B. Stainless steel

C. Brass

D. Cast iron

Ans-: B

Q.8 In which type of welding any type of confi-guration can be welded?

A. Arc 

B. Metal inert gas

C. Friction

D. TIG

Ans-: C

Q.9 Grey cast iron is usually welded by ____.

A. Arc welding

B. Gas welding

C. Friction welding

D. Metal inert gas welding

Ans-: B

Q.10 TIG welding is best suited for which material ?

A. Aluminum

B. Cast iron

C. Silver

D. Gold

Ans-: A

WELDING MCQ -02

Q.1 Butt welding or upset welding is used for joining members of approximately __________.

A. Different cross-section

B. Equal cross-section

C. Depend on material

D. Depends on electrode 

Ans-: B

Q.2 The electrode is used in the resistance welding have which type of quality?

A. High electrical conductivity

B. Water cooled

C. High Heat conductivity

D. Good Mechanical strength

E. All of the above

Ans-: E

Q.3 Brazing is used for joining ____.

A. All metals

B. Dissimilar combination of metals

C. Only cast iron and steel

D. A+ B

Ans-: D

Q.4 In welding condition , when longitudinal shear is present then _____ weld is used.

A. Butt joint

B. T - joint

C. Lap joint

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.5 In tungsten inert gas welding, following gases are used ?

A. Argon and neon

B. CO2 and H2

C. Helium and neon

D. Argon and helium

Ans-: D

Q.6 Two sheets of same material but different thickness can be butt welded by 

A. Pressure applied

B. Time duration of current

C. Changing the size of one electrode

D. Adjustment of the current

Ans-: C

Q.7  Copper is very difficult to be ____ welded.

A. Spot

B. Butt

C. T- joint

D. Lap joint

Ans-: A

Q.8 In metal inert gas welding process __.

A. Flux is required

B. Flux is not required

C. High welding speed required

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.9 Grey cast iron is best welded by the ___.

A. Arc welding

B. Oxy-acetylene welding

C. MIG welding

D. TIG welding

Ans-: B

Q.10 In gas welding heat is supplied by burning a mixture of oxygen and ___ gas.

A. Hydrogen

B. Methane

C. Acetylene

D. CO2

Ans-: C

WELDING MCQ-01

Q.1 A pool of molten metal is used in which type of welding process?

A. Tungsten inert gas

B. Metal inert gas

C. Electroslag

D. Submerged arc

Ans-: C

Q.2 In arc welding, arc is created between the electrode and work by the ___.

A. Contact resistance

B. Voltage

C. Flow of current

D. Workpiece

Ans-: A

Q.3 Flux is a material which is used for ?

A. Slow consumption of electrode

B. Higher performance

C. Coating the electrode

D. All of the above

Ans-: C

Q.4 In arc welding, eyes need to be protected against __.

A. Gases

B. Infra-red rays

C. Ultraviolet rays

D. B + C

Ans-: D

Q.5 Which of the following is not a type of welding ?

A. Gas welding

B. Resistance welding

C. Thermit welding

D. Forge welding

E. Current welding

Ans-: E

Q.6 The arc welding is done with the ______ electrode.

A. Metal

B. Carbon or metal 

C. Aluminum

D. Tungsten

Ans-: B

Q.7 Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrode?

A. TIG welding

B. MIG welding

C. Laser welding

D. Plasma welding

Ans-: A

Q.8 For arc welding, the open circuit voltage is of the order of ___.

A. 10 to 40 volts

B. 40 to 95 volts

C. 75 to 95 volts

D. 5 to 10 volts

Ans-: B

Q.9 In arc welding , the selection of diameter of electrode is based on which criterion?

A. Current uses

B. Material to be weld

C. Thickness of material

D. Type of welding process

Ans-: C

Q.10 The material which is used for coating the electrode is called ?

A. Flux

B. Coating material

C. Slag

D. Binder

Ans-: A

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ ON GEARS, VIBRATION, GOVERNOR

Q.1 The power of a porter governor is inversely proportional to ____.

A. S/2

B. S^2

C. S

D. S ^3

Ans-: B

Q.2 The weight of a porter governor is inversely proportional to_____.

A. S^2

B. ω

C. ω ^2

D. S

Ans-: C

Q.3 The stress in the disc type flywheel as compared to rim type flywheel is ___.

A. Greater

B. Less

C. Equal

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.4 The effort of a porter governor is proportional to percentage increase in the __.

A. Speed 

B. Inversely proportional to speed

C. Velocity

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.5 In which type of engine the cylinders are arranged along the radial lines ?

A. Motorcycle engine

B. Cars engine

C. Trucks engine

D. Aero engine

Ans-: D

Q.6 Which box is placed between the engine and clutch in automobiles?

A. Tool box

B. Gear box

C. Black box

D. Oil box

Ans-: B

Q.7 Which type of gears used for speed reduction of 50 : 1 ?

A. Bevel

B. Spur

C. Worm wheel

D. Herringbone

Ans-: C

Q.8 A single row six cylinder radial engine has following number of cranks?

A. Zero

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Ans-: D

Q.9 The number of degrees of freedom in a continuous system would be ___.

A. Zero

B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Ans-: C

Q.10 The height of a simple watt governor is proportional to ___.

A. Speed ( N )

B. 1/ N

C. N ^2

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

multiple choice questions on gears, vibration, Governor etc.

Q.1 At node of the shaft , vibration are __.

A. Zero

B. Corresponding to natural frequency

C. Minimum

D. Maximum

Ans-: B

Q.2 The following numbers of nodes will have a shaft if it carrying two rotors at ends?

A. 1

B. 3

C. Zero

D. 2

Ans-: A

Q.3 Following degree of freedom a vibrating beam has ?

A. Zero

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Ans-: C

Q.4 The type of teeth provided on a gear used in sugar crushing machinery is ____.

A. Paraboloid

B. Involute

C. Hyperboloid

D. Cycloidal

Ans-: D

Q.5 A shaft carrying three rotors will have the following number of nodes ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 10

Ans-: A

Q.6 The following number of natural frequen-cies a three rotor system has ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Ans-: B

Q.7 The ratio of mean speed of governor to governor speed range is known as ____.

A. Governor ratio

B. Sensitivity of Governor

C. Efficiency of Governor

D. Working capacity of Governor

Ans-: B

Q.8 What is the name given to gear trains where the axes of gears have motion?

A. Reverted gear train

B. Cycloidal gear train

C. Epicyclic gear train

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.9 Scott-Russel Mechanism is used for generating a ______.

A. Circular path

B. Angular path

C. Straight line

D. Rectangular shape

Ans-: C

Q.10 Fast pulley used to transmit the _____.

A. Power

B. Energy

C. Work

D. Material

Ans-: A

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ based on gears , vibration, gear train, Governor etc.

Q.1 The critical speed of a rotating shaft depends upon ____.

A. Mass

B. Velocity

C. Mass and stiffness

D. Weight

Ans-: C

Q.2 Cam and follower is a _____ type of pair .

A. Close

B. Open

C. Linked

D. Loose

Ans-: B

Q.3 The rate of decay of oscillations is known as the ?

A. Damping coefficient

B. Critical damping

C. Logarithmic decrement

D. All of the above

Ans-: C

Q.4 Which of the following effect is more dangerous for a ship?

A. Waving

B. Pitching

C. Rolling

D. Steering

Ans-: B

Q.5 In forced vibrations the magnitude of damping force at resonance equals to ____.

A. Spring force

B. Zero

C. Infinite

D. Impressed force

Ans-: D

Q.6 In the steady state forced vibrations, the phase lag at resonance condition is _____.

A. 90 ° 

B. 0 °

C. 45 °

D. 180 °

Ans-: A

Q.7 In gears , the tip of the tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between base and root circle then what type of effect is done.

A. Increase speed

B. Interference takes place

C. Gears move smoothly

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.8 For underdamped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration with reference to time .

A. Remain constant

B. Increases linearly

C. Decrease exponentially

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.9 The ratio of actual damping coefficient to the critical damping coefficient is called the?

A. Damping factor

B. Transmissibility

C. Magnification factor

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.10 The damping force is proportional to the velocity .

A. In forced vibration system

B. In underdamped vibration system

C. In damped vibration system

D. All of the above

Ans-: C

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ ON GEAR

Q.1 Bevel gears have their teeth____.

A. Curved over the wheel rim

B. Cut on the surface of the frusta of cones

C. Inclined to wheel rim

D. Straight over the wheel rim

Ans-: B

Q.2 The product of circular pitch and diameteral pitch is equal to the _____.

A. Module

B. Unity

C. 1

D. π

Ans-: D

Q.3 A gear whose tooth traces are straight line generators of the cone is called ?

A. Hypoid gear

B. Straight bevel gear

C. Spiral bevel gear

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.4 The tooth traces of the spiral bevel gear are _____.

A. Spiral

B. Straight

C. Curved

D. Zig-zag

Ans-: C

Q.5 Worm gears are generally used when the high speed reduction is required. What is the ratio ?

A. 5:1

B. 1:10

C. 2:5

D. 10:1

Ans-: D

Q.6 The sum of the arc of approach and the arc of recess is known as ___.

A. Arc of action

B. Arc of recess

C. Arc of approach

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.7 The arc measured on pitch circle from the point of beginning of contact to the pitch point is called the ____.

A. Arc of action 

B. Arc of approach

C. Arc of recess

D. All of the above

Ans-: B

Q.8 The acute angle between the tangent to the helix and a plane perpendicular to axis of cylinder is ?

A. Helix angle

B. Base angle

C. Acute angle

D. Lead angle

Ans-: D

Q.9 The acute angle between the tangent to the helix and axis of the cylinder on which teeth are cut is called ?

A. Acute angle

B. Base angle

C. Lead angle

D. Helix angle

Ans-: D

Q.10 Which of the following is not the gear for non- parallel, non- intersecting shafts ?

A. Worm

B. Hypoid

C. Bevel

D. Helical

Ans-: C

multiple choice questions on gears and gear terminology

Q.1 The ratio of number of teeth and pitch circle diameter is called _____.

A. Diameteral pitch

B. Module

C. Pitch

D. Teeth diameter

Ans-: A

Q.2 The pitch circle diameter of an involute gear is dependent of the _____.

A. Base diameter 

B. Tooth thickness

C. Pressure angle

D. Addendum

Ans-: C

Q.3 Which of the following is not a type of gear ?

A. Helical

B. Spur

C. Circular

D. Bevel

Ans-: C

Q.4 Gears are used generally when the centre distances are relatively ____.

A. Short

B. Long

C. Variable

D. Zero

Ans-: A

Q.5 Which gear is a cylindrical whose tooth traces are straight helices i.e.,teeth are inclined at an angle to the gear axis.

A. Spur gear

B. Helical gear

C. Worn gear

D. Bevel gear

Ans-: B

Q.6 Which gear is a spur gear of infinite diameter?

A. pinion

B. Worn gear

C. Herringbone gear

D. Rack

Ans-: D

Q.7 Bevel gears are used to transmit _______ motion between the two shafts.

A. Circular

B. Straight

C. Rotary

D. Reciprocating

Ans-: C

Q.8 The pressure angle for involute gears is ?

A. Zero

B. Variable

C. Depend on size of teeth

D. always constant

Ans-: D

Q.9 If the peripheral velocity of gears lies between 3-15 m/sec then it is called ___.

A. High velocity gear

B. Low velocity gear

C. Medium velocity gear

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.10 Pitch circle is always _____ than the base circle.

A. Bigger 

B. Smaller

C. Equal

D. Constant

Ans-: A

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ -07 ON VIBRATION

Q.1 The motion completed in the time interval of a period is called ____.

A. Period

B. Frequency

C. Cycle

D. Time

Ans-: C

Q.2 In vibration after initial displacement, no external force act and the motion is maintained by the internal elastic forces is called ____________ vibration.

A. Free 

B. Damped

C. Natural

D. Forced 

E. A+ C

Ans-: E

Q.3 The number of complete cycles of motion in a unit interval of time is known as ____.

A. Frequency

B. Time

C. Period

D. Vibration period

Ans-: A

Q.4 The interval of time taken by the motion to repeat itself is known as the _____.

A. Cycle

B. Period

C. Frequency

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.5 Due to the internal and external resistances, the energy processed by the system is gradually dissipated ,such type of vibration is known as the

_____.

A. Free vibration

B. Damped vibration

C. Torsional vibration

D. Forced vibration

Ans-: B

Q.6 When the periodic disturbing force is applied to the body, then vibrations have same frequency as the applied force is called ?

A. Natural vibration

B. Damped vibration

C. Torsional vibration

D. Forced vibration

Ans-: D

Q.7 Resonance is caused when the frequency of the external force coincides with the _____ of the system.

A. Natural vibration 

B. Force

C. Natural frequency

D. Vibration

Ans-: C

Q.8 Which of the following is not a type of vibration?

A. Free

B. Forced

C. Damped

D. Periodic 

Ans-: D

Q.9 If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the system is called ____ system.

A. Over damped

B. Under damped

C. Critically damped

D. Not damped

Ans-: C

Q.10 In forced vibrations the magnitude of damping force at resonance equals to _____.

A. Zero

B. Impressed force

C. Inertia force

D. Spring force

Ans-: B

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ-06

Q.1 Which of the following is governor used in the gramophone ?

A. Pickening

B. Hartnell

C. Porter

D. Centrifugal

Ans-: A

Q.2 Which of the following is not a flexible coupling ?

A. Muff

B. Oldham's 

C. Universal

D. Bushed pin

Ans-: A

Q.3 Practically the sensitiveness of Watt and porter governor are ?

A. Double

B. Half

C. Same

D. 1/3

Ans-: C

Q.4 The pressure angle for involute gears is ___.

A. Depending on type of meshing

B. Depending on size of teeth

C. Variable

D. Always constant

Ans-: D

Q.5 Flank is the surface of gear tooth ________ the pitch surface.

A. Above

B. Below

C. Constant

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.6 Gear box of a car utilises_______.

A. Simple train

B. Complex train

C. Compound train

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.7 Which gears are used for equal speed?

A. Spur gear

B. Bevel gear

C. Mittre gear

D. All of the above

Ans-: C

Q.8 The transverse section of a helical gear is identical to _____.

A. Bevel gear

B. Worm gear

C. Spur gear

D. Mittre gear

Ans-: C

Q.9 The surface of the gear tooth below the pitch surface is called ____.

A. Face

B. Flank

C. Tooth space

D. Tooth thickness

Ans-: B

Q.10 Muff coupling is a ______ coupling.

A. Non- flexible

B. Flexible

C. Semi flexible

D. Hard

Ans-: A

Mechanical governor and types of governor with working principal

GOVERNORS -: 

Governor is a mechanical part of an engine which maintain a constant mean speed of rotation of the crank shaft over long periods during which the load on engine may vary, by controlling the fuel input. Governor supply the fuel to the engine with variation of load on the engine and maintain constant speed.

WORKING PRINCIPAL OF GOVERNOR -:              The mechanical  governors uses the flyweights to create a force based off of the crankshaft speed which is balanced by the force of governor spring. The top engine speed is varied by the increasing spring force to run faster or decreasing the force to run slower. The governor spring wants to open the throttle and governor tries to close the throttle . The interaction of the governor spring and the mechanical governor holds the throttle at the desired engine rpms based upon a force balance and the load or operating conditions.

There are different types of governors -: 

1. Centrifugal governor.                                              2. Inertia governor.                                                      3. Watt governor.                                                        4. Porter governor.                                                      5. Hartnell governor.

1. Centrifugal governor -:                                          In centrifugal governor, governor balls are caused to revolve about the axis of the shaft. For each speed of rotation there is a fixed position of balls when the centrifugal force is just balanced by the inward controlling force exerted by springs. The movement of the balls is transmitted by governor mechanism to control the amount of the  energy supplied to the engine.

2. Inertia governor -:                                                  In this type of governor the balls are so arranged that the inertia force caused by an angular acce- leration or retardation of the governor shaft tend to alter their position and the displacement of the governor balls being controlled by springs. It has rapid response to the effect of a change of load, because displacement of the balls is proportional to the rate of change of speed of rotation.

3. Watt governor -:                                                      The watt governor height is independent of the weight of the balls and length of the supporting arms of the governor. The height of governor is varies inversely as the square of the speed.             Height " h " = g / w^2.      

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-10

Q.1 The ratio of number of teeth and pitch circle diameter is called ?

A. Diameteral pitch

B. Pitch

C. Addendum

D. Module

Ans-: A

Q.2 The circle passing through the bottom of the teeth of gear is known as ____.

A. Prime circle

B. Base circle

C. Dedendum circle

D. Addendum circle

Ans-: C

Q.3 The transverse section of a helical gear is identical to the ______ gear.

A. Bevel

B. Worm

C. Spur 

D. Helical

Ans-: C

Q.4 The difference between the addendum and dedendum is known as ______.

A. Backless

B. Clearance

C. Flank

D. Module

Ans-: B

Q.5 The path of contact in involute gears is a____.

A. Curved line

B. Circle

C. Cycloidal 

D. Straight line

Ans-: D

Q.6 Bevel gears are used to transmit ____ motion between two shafts .

A. Reciprocating

B. Rotary

C. Straight line

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.7  Which of the following are spring loaded type governor?

A. Hartnell

B. Proel

C. Gravity

D. All of the above

Ans-: A

Q.8 Which of the following is gravity controlled type governor?

A. Hartnell

B. Watt 

C. Pendulum

D. Porter

Ans-: D

Q.9 A cam and follower constitute ____ pair.

A. Lower

B. Higher

C. Kinematic

D. Link

Ans-: B

Q.10 A joint of two elements permitting relative motion is called ?

A. Lower pair

B. Higher pair

C. Kinematic pair

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

TERMINOLOGY OF GEAR TOOTH

 Terminology of gear tooth 

1.Base circle -: It us the circle from which involute form is generated. only the base circle on a gear is fixed and unalterable.

2.pitch circle -: It us an imaginary circle most use-ful in calculations. It my be noted that an infinite number of pitch circle can be chosen,each asso-ciated with its own pressure angle.

3.Module -: It is defined as the length of the pitch circle diameter per tooth. Thus, if pitch circle diameter of gear be D and number of teeth n, then module (m) = D/n .

4.Pitch circle diameter-: It is the diameter of a circle which by pure rolling action would produce the same motion as the toothed gear wheel. this the most important diameter in gears.

5.Circular pitch -: It the arc distance measured around the pitch circle from the flank of one tooth to a similar flank in the next tooth.

6.Clearance -: This is the radial distance from the tip of a tooth to the bottom of a mating tooth space when the teeth are symmetrically engaged.

7. Diameteral pitch -: The diameteral pitch can be defined as the number of teeth per inch of the pitch circle diameter.

8. Addendum -: Addendum is the radial distance from the pitch circle to the tip of the tooth.

9. Dedendum -: This is the radial distance from the pitch circle to the bottom of tooth space.

Dedendum = Addendum + Clearance 

                    = 1 m + 0.157 m. = 1.157 m

10. Blank diameter -: This is the diameter of the blank from which gear is cut . It is equal to pitch circle diameter plus twice the addenda.

11. Tooth thickness -: The tooth thickness is the arc distance measured along the pitch circle from its intercept with one flank to it's intercept with the other flank of the same tooth.

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ-05

Q.1 In the reciprocating engine Mechanism,the number of links and instantaneous centres are

A. 4 , 5

B. 4 , 6

C. 5 , 4

D. 5 , 6

Ans-: B

Q.2 The number of dead centres in a crank driven slider crank Mechanism are ___.

A. 2

B. 5

C. 4

D. Zero

Ans-: A

Q.3 Base circle decide the size of the ____.

A. Crank

B. Cam

C. Gear

D. Screw

Ans-: B

Q.4 Cylindrical cams can be classified as 

A. Circular

B. Tangent

C. Reciprocating

D. None of the above

Ans-: D

Q.5 Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of follower from ____.

A. Pitch circle

B. Root circle

C. Inner circle

D. Base circle

Ans-: D

Q.6 A circle passing through the pitch point with its centre at the centre of cam axis is known as

A. Base circle

B. Root circle

C. Prime circle

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.7 A watt governor could be classified as the __.

A. Pendulum type governor

B. Dead weight type governor

C. Inertia type governor

D. Centrifugal type governor

Ans-: A

Q.8 Which type of lubricant a rope brake dynamometer uses?

A. Water 

B. Oil

C. Grease

D. No lubricant use

Ans-: D

Q.9 Which type of brake is commonly used on the train Biggie's?

A. Hand brake

B. Shoe brake

C. Electric brake

D. Internal expanding

Ans-: B

Q.10 A Porter governor could be classified as

A. Inertia type governor

B. Pendulum type governor

C. Dead weight type governor

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ-04

Q.1 A cam Mechanism imparts _____ motion.

A. Reciprocating

B. Rotating

C. Oscillating

D. All of the above

Ans-: D

Q.2 A kinematic chain requires at least

A. 2 link and 2 turning pair

B. 4 link and 3 turning pair

C. 3 link and 4 turning pair

D. 4 link and 4 turning pair

Ans-: D

Q.3 How many links  Hart Mechanism has ?

A. 6 links

B. 5 links

C. 8 links

D. 1 links

Ans-: A

Q.4 A quarternary joint is equivalent to the _____.

A. One binary joint

B. Two binary joint

C. Three binary joint

D. Four binary joint

Ans-: C

Q.5 The frequency of oscillation at moon compared to earth will be ?

A. 5 times more

B. 2.44 times less

C. 4.2 times more

D. Zero

Ans-: B

Q.6 The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is ____.

A. Wear rapidly

B. Bulky

C. Complicated design

D. A+ B

Ans-: D

Q.7 Which of the following has eight links?

A. Hart Mechanisms

B. Pantograph Mechanism

C. Peaucellier Mechanism

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.8 The approximate straight line Mechanism is a

A. Six bar linkage

B. Four bar linkage

C. Eight bar linkage

D. Two bar linkage

Ans-: B

Q.9 Peaucellier's Mechanism is used to produce mathematically exact _______ motion.

A. Straight line motion

B. Circular line motion

C. Rotating motion

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.10 The part of tooth surface which is above the pitch surface is called?

A. Tooth space

B. Face of the tooth

C. Tooth width

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ-03

Q.1 The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or motion is known as___.

A. Inertia

B. Mass

C. Volume

D. Energy

Ans-: A

Q.2 When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous 

A. Pitching

B. Rolling

C. Steering

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.3 A belt transmitting hourse power is generally dependent upon the ____.

A. Speed of pulley

B. Tension on slack side of belt

C. Tension on tight side of belt

D. Radius of pulley

E. All of the above

Ans-: E

Q.4 In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is ____.

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal

D. Depending on efficiency

Ans-: C

Q.5 Idler pulley is used for applying ____.

A. Stress

B. Force

C. Power

D. Tension

Ans-: D

Q.6 The indicator using Watt mechanism is known as 

A. Thomson indicator

B. Richard indicator

C. Watt indicator

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.7 The power is transmitted in the automobiles from gear box to differential through the ____.

A. Universal joint

B. Bevel joint

C. Hooke's joint

D. Knuckle joint

Ans-: C

Q.8 A typewriter constitutes ___.

A. Machine

B. Structure

C. Joint

D. Mechanism

Ans-: D

Q.9 The module is equal to ( In a gear drive)

A. 1/ circular pitch

B. 1/ diameteral pitch

C. 2/ diameteral pitch

D. Diameteral pitch/ circular pitch

Ans-: B

Q.10 A pantograph is a Mechanism with the ____.

A. Rolling pair

B. Turning pair

C. Lower pair

D. Higher pair

Ans-: C

MECHANISM AND MACHINE MCQ-02

Q.1 The number of links in pantograph Mechanism is ____.

A. 2

B. 3

C.5

D.3

Ans-: D

Q.2 The motion transmitted between the teeth of gears in mesh is ___.

A. Rolling

B. Partly rolling

C. Partly sliding

D. B+C

An-:D

Q.3 In higher pair, the relative motion is combination of sliding and_____.

A. Rotary

B. Turning

C. A+B

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.4 The Hooke's joint consists of _____ .

A. Two forks

B. Three forks

C. Five forks

D. One forks

Ans-: A

Q.5 Ball bearing and roller bearing is the example of _____.

A. Sliding pair

B. Higher pair

C. Rolling pair

D. Lower pair

Ans-: C

Q.6 In gear tooth the radial distance from the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth space is known as_.

A. Addendum

B. Dedendum

C. Module

D. Pitch circle

Ans-: B

Q.7 In gear tooth the radial distance from the pitch circle to the tip of the tooth is called ?

A. Dedendum

B. Pitch circle

C. Module

D. Addendum

Ans-: D

Q.8 Any combination of gear wheels by means of which motion is transmitted from one shaft to other is known as _____.

A. Gear bus

B. Gear train

C. Gear cycle

D. Gear combination

Ans-: B

Q.9 The length of the pitch circle diameter per tooth is called___.

A. Module

B. Addendum

C. Dedendum

D. Pitch circle

Ans-: A

Q.10 Dedendum is equal to ___.

A. Addendum + clearance

B. Addendum + module

C. Module + pitch circle

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

MECHANISM AND MACHINE

Q.1 Which of the following is the example of lower pairs?

A. Automobile steering gear

B. Shaft revolving in a bearing

C. Straight line motion Mechanisms

D. All of the above

Ans-: D

Q.2 What is the purpose of link?

A. Transmit motion

B. Act as a support

C. Guide other links

D. All of the above

Ans-: D

Q.3 A simple Mechanism has ____ links.

A. 1

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

Ans-: B

Q.4 Pulley in a belt drive acts as __.

A. Rolling pair

B. Surface pair

C. Sliding pair

D. All off the above

Ans-: A

Q.5 Which of the following is a lower pair?

A. Belt drive

B. Ball and socket

C. Piston and cylinder

D. B+C

Ans-: D

Q.6 A universal joint is an example of___.

A. Rolling pair

B. Higher pair

C. Lower pair

D. Turning pair

Ans-: C

Q.7 Which of the following is a closed pair ?

A. Lower pair

B. Higher pair

C. Turning pair

D. Sliding pair

Ans-: A

Q.8 A joint of two elements permitting relative motion is known as

A. Kinematic pair

B. Lower pair

C. Higher pair

D. Sliding pair

Ans-: A

Q.9 A pair having a point contact or line contact is called ____.

A. Closed pair

B. Higher pair

C. Turning pair

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.10 Unconstrained rigid link in a plane has ____ of freedom.

A. Three degree

B. Two degree

C. Zero degree

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

LINK AND PAIRS

LINK -: Every part of a machine having motion re-lative to some other part is called link. In other words a link is defined as a rigid body having two or more pairing elements which connect it to the other bodies for the purpose of transmitting force or motion.                                                                      In every machine, at least one link either occupies a fixed position . And also carries the machine as a whole along with it during motion. A example of link is bicycle chain silver necklace etc.

PAIRS -:                                                                                   In a machine when two links or elements are contact ecah other ,they form a pair. If the relative motion between them is completely or successfully constrained in a definite direction, then the pair is known as Kinematic pair.

LOWER PAIR-:                                                                     The Lower pairs are those in which two elements have surface contact and relative motion takes place between them, e.g. nut and the screw, the universal joint used to connect two propeller shafts. A lower pair is an ideal joint that constrains contact between a surface in moving body to a corresponding surface in the fixed body.

HIGHER PAIR-:                                                                     The higher pairs have the line or point contact and pair is forced-closed in order to provide completely constrained motion. Two ele-ments held together mechanically from a closed pair and those not held together mechanically from unclosed pair.

KINEMATIC CHAIN

KINEMATIC CHAIN -: A kinematic chain is one in which the number of links are so connected that the relative motion of any point on a link with re-spect to any other point on the other link follows a law.

For a kinematic chain the relationship between number of links L and number of joints J is -

L = 2/3 ( J+2 )

In the above equation, each higher pair is taken equivalent to two lower pairs and an additional link.

MECHANISM

MECHANISM-:                                                                        A mechanism is a device which is designed to transform input forces and movement into a set of output forces and movement.It is formed when one link for kinematic chain is fixed, and the arra-ngement is used for transmitting or transforming motion. 

Mechanisms generally consist of moving compo-nents such as gears and gear trains, belt and the chain drives, cam and follower mechanisms, and linkages.

            Mechanism also consist of friction devices such as brakes and clutches, structural compone-nts such as the frame, bearing lubricants fastene-rs , springs and seals and also consist specialized machine elements such as pins, keys made splines. Each mechanism is termed as inversion of the original kinematic chain. The mechanism obtained in this way may be very different in the appearance and in the purposes for which they are used.

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-11

Q.1 Principal plane is one which shear stress is__.

A. One

B. Zero

C. Two

D. Three

Ans-: B

Q.2 The normal stress on the shear plane is ____.

A. Zero

B. Maximum

C. Minimum

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.3 Where bending moment is maximum,what is the value of shear force?

A. One 

B. Two

C. Zero

D. Four

Ans-: C

Q.4 The volumetric strain of cylindrical bar is equal to sum of longitudinal strain and twice of __.

A. Strain

B. Stress

C. Shear stress

D. Diameteral strain

Ans-: D

Q.5 The bending moment at hinge is ___.

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Zero

Ans-: D

Q.6 The rate of change of shear force is equal to

A. Load

B. Stress

C. Shear strain

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.7 The ability of a material to absorb energy in the elastic region when strained is called?

A. Elasticity

B. Malleability

C. Resilience

D. Ductility

Ans-: C

Q.8 The radius of mohr's circle represent tha value of _____ shear stress.

A. Minimum

B. Maximum

C. Constant

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.9 A vertical structural member subjected to the compression is known as___.

A. Strut

B. Beam

C. Cantilever beam

D. Column

Ans-: D

Q.10 A inclined member subjected to compression is Known as____.

A. Column

B. Beam

C. Strut

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-10

Q.1 How much is infinite life for steel components?

A. One thousand cycles

B. One million cycles

C. One billion cycles

D. Zero cycles

Ans-: B

Q.2 Whta is the bending moment at hinge of beam ?

A. One 

B. Two

C. Zero

D. 1/2

Ans-: C

Q.3 The function of an idler pulley is to _____ tension in the belt.

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. Constant

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.4 What will be the the bending moment at that section ? Where the shear force is zero along a section.

A. Minimum

B. Zero

C. Maximum

D. Two times

Ans-: C

Q.5 A beam which is supported on more than two supports known as___.

A. Fixed beam

B. Two supports beam

C. Cantilever beam

D. Continuous beam

Ans-: D

Q.6 A ______ is one in which the ends are rigidly fixed in a horizontal position.

A. Fixed beam

B. Continuous beam

C. Cantilever beam

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.7 The line to which longitudinal axis of a beam bends under a given load is called?

A. Bending line

B. Plastic line

C. Elastic line

D. Fatigue line

Ans-: C

Q.8 In the designing of clutch what criteria is adopted from safety consideration?

A. Uniform design

B. Low coast material

C. Uniform wear

D. Uniform tear

Ans-: C

Q.9 What is the ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress in a beam of rectangular section?

A. 1:2

B. 1:5

C. 2:3

D. 1:4

Ans-: B

Q.10 Solderberg equation is based on the __.

A. Tensile strength of material

B. Compressive stress of material

C. Ultimate strength of material

D. Yield Strength of material

Ans-: D

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-09

Q.1 Stress in a beam and the second modulus are _____.

A. Inversely proportional

B. Directly proportional

C. Equal

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.2 According to Hooke's law, stress and strain are _____.

A. Equal

B. Inversely proportional

C. Directly proportional

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.3 Principal plane carry ____ shear stress.

A. Maximum

B. No 

C. Minimum

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.4  On the mutually perpendicular planes shear stress are ___.

A. Zero

B. Maximum

C. One

D. Equal

Ans-: D

Q.5 Stress in a beam and moment are 

A. Directly proportional

B. Inversely proportional

C. Equal

D. Zero

Ans-: A

Q.6 The steel bars in a concrete beam are embedded ___.

A. At top section

B. Near the top section

C. Near bottom section

D. Any where

Ans-: C

Q.7 The ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter of spring is known as ____.

A. Coil index

B. Spring index

C. Spring capacity

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.8 Which types of beams occur the points of contraflexure?

A. Fixed beam

B. Overhanging beam

C. Cantilever beam

D. A+B

Ans-: D

Q.9 What is the bending moment at hinge?

A. Zero

B. One 

C. 1/4

D.1/2

Ans-: A

Q.10 Stiffness of a beam is ____ to the deflection.

A. Directly proportional

B. Equal

C. Zero

D. Inversely proportional

Ans-: D

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-09

Q.1 Hoop stress in thin walled cylinder is ___.

A. Shear stress

B. Radial stress

C. Circumferential tensile stress

D. Longitudinal stress

Ans-: C

Q.2 In the thick cylinder the stresses at any point are ____.

A. Shear

B. Compressive

C. Tensile

D. Principal

Ans-: D

Q.3 The rate of change of shear force at any section is equal to ____.

A. Intensity of loading

B. Deflection

C. Slope

D. Bending

Ans-: A

Q.4 Bending moment is maximum or minimum when shear force along a section is ____.

A. Minimum

B. Zero

C. Maximum

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.5 What happened? When a strip made of Copper and iron is heated .

A. It does not bend

B. It bend with iron at convex side

C. It bend with copper 

D. It bend with copper at concave side

Ans-: B

Q.6 For a cantilever beam carrying concentrated load at end of the beam , the moment diagram will be ?

A. Square

B. Triangle

C. Rectangle

D. Circle

Ans-: B

Q.7 The design of thin cylindrical shell is based on ___.

A. Shear stress

B. Shear strain

C. Hoop stress

D. Longitudinal stress

Ans-: C

Q.8 In a laminated spring the strips are provided in different length for which purpose?

A. Better look

B. Light in weight

C. Equal distribution of stress

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.9 Ratio of thickness to diameter for thin cylinder is ___.

A. 1/20

B.1/50

C.1/30

D. 1/10

Ans-: A

Q.10 During impact loading the stress developed as compared to gradually applied load is __.

A. 2 times 

B. 3 times

C. 1.5 times

D. Zero

Ans-: A

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL

Q.1 Torsion bar are in ______ if same torque acts in each.

A. Parallel

B. Series

C. A+B

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.2 Section modulus Z is expressed as 

A. E/I

B. M/I

C. EI

D. I/y

Ans-: D

Q.3 Strength of a beam is proportional to the square of its ___.

A. Depth

B. Length

C. Width

D. Thickness

Ans-: A

Q.4 The ratio of stress intensity to volumetric strain is known as ___.

A. Modulus of elasticity

B. Modulus of rigidity

C. Bulk modulus of a material

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.5 For a cantilever beam carrying uniformly distributed load ,the moment diagram will be__.

A. Cubic

B. Triangle

C. Parabola

D. Rectangle

Ans-: C

Q.6 Strength of beam is directly proportional to it's

A. Depth

B. Width

C. Length

D. Hight

Ans-: B

Q.7 The steel bars in reinforced cement concrete beam are located at ____.

A. Bottom

B. Top

C. Centre

D. Neutral axis

Ans-: A

Q.8 The bending moment on a section is _______ where shearing force is maximum.

A. Minimum

B. Zero

C. One

D. Maximum

Ans-: D

Q.9 Moment of a beam is defined as it's section modulus multiplied by 

A. Strain

B. Toughness

C. Stress

D. Moment of inertia

Ans-: C

Q.10  The rate of change of bending moment is equal to _____ at the section.

A. Stress

B. Strain

C. Unit stress

D. Shear force

Ans-: D

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-07

Q.1 Which type of pressure , a key is subjected as a side pressure as well at shearing forces?

A. Couple force

B. Bearing stresses

C. Fatigue stresses 

D. Shearing stresses

Ans-: B

Q.2 The unit of stress is ?

A. Pascal

B. N/m

C. Kg/m

D. Newton

Ans-: A

Q.3 The ration of the elastic limit to actual stress is known as____.

A. Toughness

B. Factor of safety

C. Factor of stress

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.4 The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular cross-section is ____ the average shear stress.

A. 2 times

B. 3 times

C. 1.5 times

D. 2.5 times

Ans-: C

Q.5 The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular section and circular section of the same area of cross-section is ___.

A. 2.5

B. 4/5

C. 3/4

D. 9/8

Ans-: D

Q.6 Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected to tension will be__.

A. Maximum at centre

B. Minimum at centre

C. Variable

D. None of the above

Ans-: D

Q.7 A structural member subjected to an axial compressive force is called ____.

A. Beam

B. Frame

C. Strut

D. Column

Ans-: C

Q.8 Pressure vessels are not made of rectangular shape, because

A. They do not give pleasing appearance

B. Difficult to fabricate

C. They are not economical

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.9 What happened in winter, when a cylindrical vessel was sealed in summer.

A. Explode

B. Nothing

C. Become tighter

D. Buckle and collapse

Ans-: D

Q.10 In the case of thick cylinder, the ratio of cylinder diameter to wall thickness is less than or equal to ____.

A.10

B. 25

C. 20

D. 35

Ans-: C

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-06

Q.1 Which of the following material are used for making of rivets ?

A. Hard

B. Brittle

C. Ductile

D. Malleable

Ans-: C

Q.2 The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is known as______.

A. Volumetric strain

B. Modulus of rigidity

C. Modulus of elasticity

D. Modulus of resilience

Ans-: B

Q.3 Twisting couple in a shaft introduces in it__.

A. Shear strain

B. Shear stress

C. Stress

D. Bending

Ans-: B

Q.4 The diameter of rivets in mm for a plate of thickness 't' mm is taken as _____.

A. 6.05 √ t

B. 5.03 √t

C. 0.05 √t

D. 2 t

Ans-: A

Q.5 What happened when increase the number of rows of rivets 

A. Increase/decrease of efficiency of joint depends upon number of rivets used.

B. Increase the efficiency of the rivet joint

C. Decrease the efficiency of the rivet joint

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.6 Thin cylinders are used to store ____.

A. Water 

B. Gas

C. Steam

D. Oil

E. All of the above

Ans-: E

Q.7 A structure, made up of several bars ,joined together is known as___.

A. Beam

B. Column

C. Strut

D. Frame

Ans-: D

Q.8 Seamless cylindrical section have ____ joint.

A. Two

B. Five

C. Four

D. No joint ( zero )

Ans-: D

Q.9 A frame which have sufficient number of members to keep it in equilibrium is known as_.

A. Deficient beam

B. Perfect beam

C. Ideal beam

D. Equilibrium beam

Ans-: B

Q.10 The ratio of longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain is known as ___.

A. Modulus of elasticity

B. Modulus of rigidity

C. Young's modulus

D. Creep

Ans-: C

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-05

Q.1 The total strain energy stored in a body is known as __.

A. Resilience

B. Proof resilience

C. Modulus of elasticity

D. Creep

Ans-: A

Q.2 Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to __.

A. Fatigue

B. Creep

C. Shock loading

D. Impact load

Ans-: C

Q.3 The loss of ____ in compression due to overloading is known as Bouschinger effect.

A. Stress

B. Energy

C. Power

D. Strength

Ans-: D

Q.4 generally flow stress is corresponds to plastic deformation of ______.

A. Liquid

B. Solid

C. Semi liquid

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.5 A non-yielding support implies that the slope of the beam at the support is 

A. Zero

B. Maximum

C. Minimum

D. Variable

Ans-: A

Q.6 A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as

A. Shock proof

B. Strain energy

C. Toughness

D. Hardness

Ans-: C

Q.7 The Yield point in static loading in comparison to yield point in fatigue loading is __.

A. Lower

B. Higher

C. Half

D. Twice

Ans-: A

Q.8 The distance between the centres of two consecutive rivets in the same row is called ____.

A. Lap

B. Lead

C. Pitch

D. Spacing

Ans-: C

Q.9 All stresses , shearing, bearing and tensile in riveted boiler joints are based on the size of __.

A. Drilled or reamed hole

B. Rivet

C. Rivet and hole

D. Hole 

Ans-: A

Q.10 M^1L^-1T^-2 is the dimension of _____.

A. Stress

B. Strain

C. Young's modulus

D. Ultimate strength

Ans-: C

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-04

Q.1 The value of poisson's ratio for cast iron is __.

A. 0.25 to 0.45

B. 0.23 to 0.27

C. 0.15 to 0.25

D. 1.05 to 2.00

Ans-: B

Q.2 Which of the following have the poisson's ratio more than unity ?

A. Aluminum

B. Wrought iron

C. Steel

D. None of the above

Ans-: D

Q.3 ______ is the phase of plastic or inelastic action.

A. Creep

B. Strain

C. Elongation

D. Fatigue stress

Ans-: A

Q.4 When the cyclic variation to either load or strain is coincident with respect to time then ______ occur.

A. Creep stress

B. Fatigue stress

C. Tensile strength

D. Impact stress

Ans-: B

Q.5  The elasticity of various materials is controlled by it's 

A. Proof stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Stress at elastic limit

D. Ultimate tensile stress

Ans-: C

Q.6 what happened when a material expands freely due to heating , it will develop_____.

A. Tensile stress

B. Ultimate tensile stress

C. Bending

D. No stress

Ans-: D

Q.7 The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called _____.

A. Breaking stress

B. Proof stress

C. Unit stress

D. Tensile strength

Ans:- A

Q.8 In which stress the load at breaking point or neck area .

A. Rupture stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Ultimate stress

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.9  The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called ?

A. Ductility

B. Malleability

C. Plasticity

D. Elasticity

Ans-: B

Q.10 Modulus of elasticity in shear is sometimes called the _____.

A. Yield point stress

B. Elastic limit

C. Modulus of rigidity

D. Modulus of resilience

Ans-: C

STRENGTH OF MATERIAL MCQ-:03

Q.1 The unit of Young's modulus is ____.

A. Kg

B. Kg/cm

C. Kg/cm^2

D. Kg/cm^3

Ans-: C

Q.2 Isotropic material have _____ properties in all directions .

A. Different elastic properties

B. Same elastic properties

C. No elastic properties

D. Various elastic properties

Ans-: B

Q.3 The maximum energy stored at elastic limit, is known as ______.

A. Resilience

B. Creep

C. Stress

D. Proof resilience

Ans-: D

Q.4 The proof resilience per unit volume is known as ______.

A. Modulus of resilience

B. Resilience

C. Flow of metal

D. Resilience limit

Ans-: A

Q.5  which of the following are is a graphical representation of the stress in an element subjected to general two dimension stress system.

A. Flow chart diagrams

B. Mohr's circle diagram

C. A+B

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.6 The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is ____.

A. Same

B. Less

C. More 

D. Variable

Ans-: C

Q.7 The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called ____.

A. Bulk modulus

B. Modulus of elasticity

C. Unit stress

D. Total stress

Ans-: B

Q.8 The unit of strain is ?

A. N/m

B. Kg/m

C. N/m^2

D. No unit 

Ans-: D

Q.9  Which type of strength of a material is an index of its toughness?

A. Tensile strength

B. Impact strength

C. Ultimate strength

D. Unit strength

Ans-: B

Q.10 The poisson's ratio for steel is between __.

A. 0.25 to 0.33

B. 0.25 to 0.45

C. 0.05 to 0.1

D. 1.5 to 2.5

Ans-: A

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES MCQ

Q. 1 If the smallest load produces a permanent deformation on a material than this material known as plastic and process of deformation is ?

A. Elasticity

B. Plasticity

C. Ductility

D. Malleability

Ans-: B

Q.2 The ability of a material to undergo Large per-manent deformation in tension i.e. material to be drawn into a wire known as

A. Ductility

B. Malleability

C. Machinability

D. Plasticity

Ans-: A

Q.3 A material , which can be only slightly defor-med without rupture is termed as _____.

A. Brittle material

B. Ductile material

C. Elastic material

D. Plastic material

Ans-: A

Q.4 A material which have ability to resist defor-mation under stress called ______ material.

A. Brittle

B. Ductile

C. Stiff

D. None of the above

And -: C

Q.5 Which of the following is the opposite term of plasticity?

A. Elasticity

B. Malleability

C. Ductility

D. Brittleness

Ans-: D

Q.6 The " factor of safety " is the ratio of ultimate strength of the material to the _______.

A. Strain

B. Allowable stress

C. Ultimate stress

D. Yield point

Ans-: B

Q.7  The ability of a material to deform and return to its original shape upon removal of the load is called?

A. Elasticity

B. Plasticity

C. Toughness

D. Stiffness

Ans-: A

Q.8  The property of the material which permits material to be beaten or rolled into thin sheets.

A. Toughness

B. Hardness

C. Malleability

D. Ductility

Ans-: C

Q.9 Which property of the material provide the ability to resist very small indentation , abrasion and plastic deformation ?

A. Hardness

B. Toughness

C. Brittleness

D. Stiffness

Ans-: A

Q.10 The ability to withstand high unit stress to-gether with great unit deformation without comp-lete fracture. 

A. Hardness

B. Brittleness

C. Stiffness

D. Toughness

Ans-: D

Q.11  Cast iron is a _____ material .

A. Malleable

B. Brittle

C. Ductile

D. Plastic

Ans-: B

Q.12 Which of the following are not the ductile material?

A. Coper

B. Steel

C. Aluminum

D. Glass

Ans-: D

Q.13 Which of the following material is most elastic?

A. Rubber

B. Steel

C. Plastic

D. Glass

Ans-: B

Q.14 The material which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called ?

A. Isentropic

B. Isotropic

C. Homogeneous

D. None of the other

Ans-: B

Q.15 The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as ____.

A. Toughness

B. Hardness

C. Resilience

D. Stiffness

Ans-: C

STRESS MCQ -: 01

Q.1 The change in length per unit length is known as ?

A. Stress

B. Strain 

C. Elasticity

D. Ductility

Ans-: B

Q.2 The ratio of the maximum load that a speci-men sustain to it's original area of the cross -section is known as_______.

A. Stress 

B. Shear stress

C. Ultimate stress

D. Strain

Ans-: C

Q.3 The maximum unit stress to which a material may be subjected and steel be able to return to it's original form removal of stress is called ___.

A. Proportional limit

B. Yield point limit

C. Unit stress

D. Elastic limit

Ans-: D

Q.4 The stress per unit area is called ?

A. Unit stress

B. Total stress

C. Ultimate stress

D. Shear stress

Ans-: A

Q.5 The highest unit stress at which the stress is proportional to deformation is known as _____.

A. Proportional limit

B. Elastic limit

C. Yield point

D. Ultimate stress

Ans-: A

Q.6 The unit stress at which the deformation first increases markedly without any increase in the applied load is called _______ of a material.

A. Ultimate strain

B. Ultimate stress

C. Yield point

D. Elastic limit

Ans-: C

Q.7 Ultimate strength is the ____ unit stress it can sustain before rupturing.

A. Lowest

B. Highest

C. Constant

D. Shear

Ans-: B

Q.8 The unit stress at which the material tested ruptures.

A. Maximum strength

B. Ultimate strength

C. Breaking strength

D. Poor strength

Ans-: C

Q.9 Yield point is always ______ the proportional limit.

A. Above

B. Below

C. Equal

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.10 The stress on a section is one that acts in a direction perpendicular to section considered called ?

A. Unit stress

B. Shear stress

C. Normal stress

D. Total stress

Ans-: C

Engineering mechanics MCQ-: 07

Q.1 What is the escape velocity on the surface of the earth?

A. 11.2 km/sec

B. 11.2 m/sec

C. 1.5 km/sec

D. 2.5 m/sec

Ans-: A

Q.2 What happened , if the speed of rotation of earth decrease ?

A. The weight of the body will remain same

B. The weight of the body will decrease

C. The weight of the body will increase

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.3 "If three forces acting on a particle keep it in equilibrium then each is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two " .

A. Law of superposition

B. Lami's theorem

C. Pascal's law

D. Law of moments

Ans-: B

Q.4 A string which offers no resistance on bending at any point is called ?

A. Curve string

B. Bend string

C. Flexible string

D. Uniform string 

Ans-: C

Q.5 A machine is said to be _______ when the load gets lowered on removal of the effort.

A. Ideal

B. Irreversible

C. Reversible

D. None of the above

Ans-: C

Q.6 If an object is thrown in air with certain initial velocity and allowed to fall under influence of gravity, it will traverse along a certain path before falling on the ground ,known as _____.

A. Hyperbolic

B. Circular

C. Constant

D. Trajectory

Ans-: D

Q.7 Which type of shape trajectory have?

A. Circular

B. Parabolic

C. Hyperbolic

D. Straight

Ans-: B

Q.8  Rotational power P = torque × _______.

A. Angular velocity

B. Force

C. Acceleration

D. Angular viscosity

Ans-: A

Q.9 The point on the body at which a blow may be struck so that the reaction at the point of suspen-sion is zero.

A. Centre of gravity of the body

B. Centre of percussion

C. Centre of gravity

D. None of the above

Ans-: B

Q.10 Gravitation deals with the mutual attraction which exists between _____.

A. Bodies

B. Points

C. Systems

D. None on the above

Ans-: A

Standardization in operation management

Standardization refers to the reducing the variety of items to a minimum by fixing sizes, shapes, di-mensions and other quality characteristics of the item. A standardization process consists of criti-cally examining the items to be stocked or manu- factured for -

(a) The performance characteristics and the use characteristics.

(b) The uses to which these parts are intended.

Standardization helps in the product design by-

(a) Specifying rating of machines or equipments.  (b) Specifying methods of inspection and testing.

(c) Specifying physical and chemical properties of materials.

(d) Specifying a defined range for physical dimen-sions and tolerances of components.

(e) Specifying methods of installation.

DESIGN FOR MANUFACTURING

Design for manufacturing is the structured metho -dology which guides the product designer during designing. It uses catalogs of information, guide- lines, checklists, tables, diagrams and graphs to help the designer develop a design plan , decom-pose products into components and assemblies, evaluate the production costs of product design and thus simplifies the product design. Design for manufacturing, thus refers to the processes which hvae been developed for reducing manufa-cturing cost without compromising the product quality.

ENGINEERING MECHANICS MCQ-:07

Q.1 What is the length of a second pendulum?

A. 100 cm

B. 75 cm

C. 99.4 cm

D. 95.3 cm

Ans-: C

Q.2 In second pendulum, the pendulum executes _____ per second. 

A. One beat

B. Two beat

C. Three beat

D. Four beat

Ans-: A

Q.3 Two forces can be equilibrium only if they are equal in magnitude, opposite in direction, and collinear in action .

A. Law of superposition

B. Law of equilibrium 

C. Law of moments 

D. Law of dynamic friction

Ans-: B

Q.4 According to law of dynamic friction,  friction force ______ at a slow rate with the increase of speed.

A. Increases 

B. Constant 

C. Decrease 

D. Zero

Ans-: C

Q.5 When a body starts moving , the force of friction offered by the surface is called ___. 

A. Static friction 

B. Dynamic friction 

C. Limiting friction 

D. Force of friction 

Ans-: B

Q.6 A body in simple harmonic motion will have maximum velocity when it's amplitu-de is _____.

A. Zero

B. Maximum 

C. One

D. Minimum 

Ans-: A

Q.7 When a ship displace water equal to its own _____ it will not sink.

A. Volume 

B. Density 

C. Surface area

D. Weight 

Ans-: D

Q.8 The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum depends on the _____.

A. Density of Bob

B. It's effective length

C. Mass of Bob 

D. Weight of Bob 

Ans-: B

Q.9 For a falling body , the sum of kinetic and potential energy is ______.

A. Zero

B. Constant at all point

C. Maximum at starting point 

D. Minimum at starting point 

Ans-: B

Q.10 In simple harmonic motion the acce-leration is proportional to ____.

A. Velocity 

B. Displacement 

C. Distance 

D. Time 

Ans-: B

ENGINEERING MECHANICS MCQ-:06

Q.1 When the acceleration is proportional to displacement the motion is called ?

A. Gyroscopic 

B. Rotational 

C. Simple harmonic 

D. Angular 

Ans-: C

Q.2 In the universe, which type of force keeping the planets in a regular orbit ?

A. Magnetic force 

B. Gravitational force 

C. Electromagnetic force

D. Electrostatic force

Ans-: B

Q.3 A swinging pendulum eventually stops because its energy is ______.

A. Converted to heat energy

B. Converted to electrical energy 

C. Destroyed 

D. None of the above 

Ans-: A

Q.4 When the angle of projection is _____ the range of projectile is maximum. 

A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 180°

Ans-: B

Q.5 The escape velocity of a body on the earth remains unchanged with variation of _________.

A. Speed

B. Length 

C. Mass

D. Weight

Ans-: C

Q.6 The escape velocity is depends upon the ______.

A. Mass of the body 

B. Weight of the body

C. Speed of the body 

D. Planet 

Ans-: D

Q.7 Time in upward journey is ____ as in downward journey. 

A. Same

B. Maximum 

C. Minimum 

D. Depend on the distance 

Ans-: A

Q.8 When two systems are in resonance, then the following parameter for both is equal ?

A. Wavelength 

B. Frequency 

C. Intensity 

D. Amplitude 

Ans-: B

Q.9 According to law of static friction the magnitude of the force of friction,is always ______ to the applied force. 

A. Maximum 

B. Equal 

C. Minimum 

D. Greater than 

Ans-: B

Q.10 The force of friction depends upon the __________ of the surface. 

A. Area 

B. Roughness 

C. Thickness 

D. All of the above 

Ans-: B

TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT

                              TQM 

"TQM is an integrated managment approa-ch in satisfying customer needs in totality on a continuing basis through the involve-ment of each and every employee in orga-nization making continuous improve-ment on one side and an appropriate cost effec-tive technology alongwith proper solving methodology, on the other".

                 TQM means managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimen-sion of products and services that are the important to the customer. Main theme be-hind TQM is that the quality cannot be ins-pected into a product,  it need to be make right at the first time. It is possible to ach-ieve defect free work most of the time. This approach is called ' right first time ', ' every time 'or zero defects.This emphasize s use of continuous measurement,process control and the data driven elimination of scrap and rework. Most of the defects can be avoided by good design , structured process and trained people. 

Principles of TQM  

          TQM focuses at two levels. Firstly an external one aimed at identifying customer requirements and secondly an internal one focusing on organization, systems and the procedures to meet those requirements right the first time and every time. 

TOTAL PRODUCTIVE MAINTENANCE

TOTAL PRODUCTIVE MAINTENANCE 

In 1971, the Japan institute of plant maint-enance defined TPM as a system of maint-enance covering the entire life of the equi-pment in every division, including planning, manufacturing and maintenance. Because of its objective to increase equipment the productivity,  the term TPM ,is sometimes known as Total productivity management. TPM emphasizes preventive maintenance and transfer routine maintenance activity from specialized maintenance personnel to machine operators. 

             One of the most common cause of machine breakdowns in inadequate preve-ntive maintenance. The primary reason for inadequate preventive maintenance is due to the fact that preventive maintenance is generally assigned to specialized mainten-ance crews. As a result of which routine preventive maintenance gets neglected, ultimately leading to more frequent break-downs. This problem can be solved to a large extent by training the machine operat -ors to perform some of their own mainte-nance , especially preventive maintenance. This strategy is referred as total produc-tive maintenance. 

TPM involves everyone, from top execut-ives to shop-floor workers to promote the productive maintenance through the moral building management and small group act-ivities in an effort to maximize equipment efficiency. 

BATH TUB CURVE

                      Bath tub curve 

The general failure curve for commonly used electronic components is known as the bath tub curve due to its shape. It is generally the variation of failure rate of component with time. it can be considered as a summa-tion of three processes - An early failure pro-cess, A random failure process and A wear- out process.

During the initial stage of the product when it is new, it is more likely to fail. This period is termed as break-in period and failures are termed as infant or early failure. This high failure rate is due to design errors, manufacturing, defects or installation defects. This is the period of severe failure and debugging of these failure. These early failure can be minimized by improving production quality control , subjecting the parts to a proof test before they are" running in".

After passing through initial break-in period, failure occurs less frequently and eventually the failure rate reaches a constant value. The failure in this period are termed as service failure. These failure occurs randomly and do not follow any predictable pattern. The reason behind these failures are the random overloads or random flaws.

Finally, after a long time the material and the components began to deteriorated, as they have exceeded their service life. During this stage failure rate again accelerates and failures in this stage are appropriately term as wear-out failures.

ENGINEERING MECHANICS MCQ -: 05

 Q.1 A wound watch spring possesses energy stored in the form of ______ .

A. Potential energy 

C. Mechanical energy

C. Kinetic energy 

D. Mechanical potential energy

Ans-: D

Q.2 __________ of a body does not depend upon the angular velocity of the body.

A. Acceleration 

B. Moment of inertia 

C.  Kinetic energy 

D. Mass 

Ans-: B

Q.3 For a machine to be self-locking , its efficiency should be ______.

A. 100 %

B. More than 50 %

C. Less than 50 %

D. 85 %

Ans-: C

Q.4 The value of acceleration due to ______ at poles as compared to at equator is greater. 

A. Gravity 

B. Weight 

C. Latitude 

D. Direction 

Ans-: A

Q.5 The weight of an object would be ________ when it is placed at the centre of the earth. 

A. Maximum 

B. Zero

C. Minimum 

D. Unpredictable 

Ans-: C

Q.6 When a body falls freely under gravita-tional force,  it possesses 

A. Minimum weight

B. No weight 

C. Maximum weight 

D. No effect on weight 

Ans-: B

Q.7  A jet engine work on the principle of 

A. Conservation of energy 

B. Conservation of linear momentum 

C. Conservation of mass

D. None of the above 

Ans-: B

Q.8 Which law provide the defination of force?

A. First law of thermodynamics 

B. Law of energy conservation 

C. First law of motion

D. Law of moments

Ans-: C

Q.9 The angle of repose is always _________ to angle of friction. 

A. Equal 

B. Less than 

C. Greater than

D. Inversely proportional 

Ans-: A

Q.10 The greatest angle, at which a plane must be inclined to the horizontal, before the body lying on it just slides down known as ___. 

A. Angle of repose 

B. Angle of friction 

C. Coefficient of friction 

D. None of the above 

Ans-: A

ENGINEERING MECHANICS MCQ-: 04

 Q.1 In the simple harmonic motion , acceleration of a particle is proportional to the ______.

A. Velocity 

B. Direction 

C. Acceleration 

D. Displacement 

Ans-: D

Q.2 The value of the coefficient of restitution for  perfectly elastic bodies is _____.

A. 0.5 

B. 2.5

C. 1.0

D. 0

Ans-: C

Q.3 The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the ______.

A. Acceleration 

B. Impressed force 

C. Velocity 

D. All of the above 

Ans-: B

Q.4 The unit of momentum are same as of the ____.

A. Energy 

B. Impulse 

C. Force 

D. Work

Ans-: B

Q.5 If the momentum of a given body is doubled, it's kinetic energy will ______.

A. Increase by 4 times

B. Remain same

C. Reduce to one fourth 

D. Increase by 3 times 

Ans-: A

Q.6 One joule is equal to _____ erg.

A. 10 ^7 

B. 10 ^4

C. 10 ^5

D. 10 ^2

Ans-: A

Q.7 Lighter body will have smaller momen-tum, if a light body and a heavy body have _______ kinetic energy of translation. 

A. More

B. Less

C. Equal 

D. Variable 

Ans-: C

Q.8 Force × time =_____ .

A. Work

B. Power

C. Energy 

D. Impulse 

Ans-: D

Q.9 Mass × velocity = _______.

A. Weight 

B. Load

C. Momentum 

D. Speed

Ans-: C

Q.10 Joule is the unit of _____.

A. Energy 

B. Work

C. Power

D. Frequency 

Ans-: B

ENGINEERING MECHANICS MCQ-:03

 Q.1 The example of lever of first order is __.

A. Pair of clinical tongs

B. Pair of scissors

C. Arm of man

D. All of the above 

Ans-: D

Q.2 In actual machines the mechanical advantage is _______ velocity ratio.

A. More than

B. Less than

C. Equal to velocity ratio

D. Zero

Ans-: B

Q.3 Tension in a string is maximum at ____.

A. Mid way

B. Right support 

C. Left support 

D. Quarter span

Ans-: A

Q.4 In ideal machine the mechanical advantage is _______ velocity ratio .

A. More than 

B. Zero

C. Equal to  

D. Less than 

Ans-: C

Q.5 A pair of Smith's tongs is an example of the lever of _______.

A. Second order

B. First order

C. Fourth order

D. Third order

Ans-: A

Q.6 The product of mass and velocity is known as _______.

A. Work

B. Impulse 

C. Momentum 

D. Power

Ans-: C

Q.7 The sum of kinetic and potential energies will be maximum at ______ , when a ball is thrown up.

A. Highest point

B. Ground 

C. In the centre while going up

D. At all the points 

Ans-: D

Q.8 The capacity of doing work is known as ___. 

A. Power

B. Energy 

C. Momentum 

D. Work

Ans-: B

Q.9 One Newton is equal to _____.

A. 10 ^7 dyne

B. 10 ^5 dyne

C. 10 ^3 dyne

D. 10 ^4 dyne 

Ans-: A

Q.10 The rate of doing work is known as ___. 

A. Energy 

B. Force 

C. Power 

D. Acceleration 

Ans-: C

ENGINEERING MECHANICS MCQ-: 2

 Q.1 The ratio of the limiting friction and the normal reaction is known as ___.

A. Sliding friction 

B. Coefficient of friction 

C. Angle of repose

D. Angle of friction 

Ans-: B

Q.2 The angle of projection should be ______ , for maximum range of a projectile. 

A. 30 °

B. 45 °

C. 0 °

D. 60 °

Ans-: B

Q.3 The frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called _____.

A. Dynamic friction 

B. Limiting friction 

C. Kinematic friction 

D. None of the above 

Ans-: A

Q.4 Which of the following is not the unit of energy?

A. Kg m

B. Kcal

C. Watt hours

D. Watts

Ans -: D

Q.5 The friction force acting when the body is in motion known as ______ .

A. Limiting friction 

B. Dynamic friction 

C. Kinematic friction 

D. Sliding friction 

Ans-: C

Q.6 The centre of gravity of a plane laminar will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a _______.

A. Rectangular 

B. Circle 

C. Right angled triangle 

D. Square 

Ans-: C

Q.7 The centre of gravity of a right circular solid Cone height h lies at the following  distance from the base ?

A. h/3

B. h/2

C. h/ 6

D. h/4

Ans-: D

Q.8 The friction force acting when the body is just about to move is known as ___. 

A. Limiting friction 

B. Kinematic friction 

C. Sliding friction 

D. None of the above

Ans-: A

Q.9 Coulomb friction is the friction between the bodies having _____  .

A.  relative motion

B. Two dry surface

C. Angular motion

D. All of the above 

Ans-: A

Q.10 Tangent of angle of friction is equal to

A. Angle of repose

B. Friction force 

C. Coefficient of friction 

D. Kinematic friction 

Ans-: C